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PH8.1-11 | Antimicrobial and Chemotherapy Pharmacology — Graded Quiz
Graded
12 questions · Untimed · 2 attempts
Click any question card to reveal the correct answer.
A 62-year-old man with hospital-acquired pneumonia is started on once-daily amikacin. The pharmacist recommends extended-interval dosing (single large daily dose rather than divided doses three times daily). Which pharmacokinetic/pharmacodynamic parameter BEST justifies this dosing strategy?
A
Aminoglycosides are time-dependent killers; maximising time above MIC improves bactericidal activity
B
Aminoglycosides exhibit concentration-dependent killing; a high peak:MIC ratio (≥8–10) maximises bactericidal effect and post-antibiotic effect
✓
C
Aminoglycosides have a broad therapeutic window and frequent dosing maximises AUC
D
Aminoglycosides undergo first-pass metabolism and require frequent oral dosing to maintain steady-state levels
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A 28-year-old HIV-positive man (CD4 count 180/µL) is diagnosed with pulmonary TB (smear positive). He is already on TDF+3TC+DTG for 3 months with an undetectable viral load. What is the MOST important drug interaction concern when starting HRZE?
A
Ethambutol reduces TDF absorption in the small intestine
B
Rifampicin is a potent CYP450 inducer and significantly reduces plasma levels of dolutegravir
✓
C
Isoniazid and TDF together cause additive nephrotoxicity
D
Pyrazinamide and lamivudine compete for the same renal tubular secretion transporter
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A 30-year-old woman on Month 4 of MB MDT for leprosy presents with sudden appearance of 5 new erythematous tender nodules on her face and arms (different sites from existing lesions), fever 38.5°C, and bilateral ankle oedema. Existing lesions are unchanged. What is the MOST likely diagnosis and appropriate management?
A
Type 1 (reversal) reaction — treat with prednisolone 40mg/day and continue MDT
B
Type 2 (erythema nodosum leprosum — ENL) reaction — treat with thalidomide or prednisolone, continue MDT
✓
C
Drug reaction to dapsone — stop dapsone and continue rifampicin + clofazimine
D
Bacterial relapse — repeat skin biopsy and switch to second-line anti-leprosy drugs
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A 22-year-old student presents with 5 days of bloody diarrhoea and lower abdominal cramps. Stool examination shows Entamoeba histolytica trophozoites containing ingested red blood cells. He is started on metronidazole 750mg three times daily for 10 days. What is the MOST important next step after completing metronidazole?
A
Add albendazole 400mg daily for 3 days to cover any co-existing helminthic infection
B
Add diloxanide furoate 500mg three times daily for 10 days to eradicate residual intraluminal cysts
✓
C
Prescribe IV ceftriaxone to cover potential bacterial superinfection of the colonic ulcers
D
Perform repeat stool examination only — no additional treatment needed if trophozoites are cleared
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A 19-year-old immunocompetent patient with cryptococcal meningitis is started on conventional (deoxycholate) amphotericin B. On day 3, his serum creatinine rises from 0.9 to 2.4 mg/dL, potassium falls to 2.8 mEq/L, and he develops rigors during infusion. Which intervention is MOST appropriate?
A
Discontinue all amphotericin B treatment and substitute with fluconazole monotherapy
B
Switch to liposomal amphotericin B (L-AmB), administer normal saline pre/post-infusion, supplement potassium, and premedicate with paracetamol and antihistamine for rigors
✓
C
Continue conventional AmB without modification and wait for renal function to stabilise
D
Add vancomycin to cover potential bacterial catheter-related infection causing renal failure
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A medical student is studying anticancer drug pharmacology. She correctly states: 'Vinca alkaloids arrest cell division in M-phase, while antimetabolites are most active in S-phase.' Her examiner asks: 'Which drug class kills cancer cells in ANY phase of the cell cycle, including G0 (resting phase)?'
A
Antimetabolites (e.g., 5-fluorouracil, methotrexate)
B
Alkylating agents (e.g., cyclophosphamide, chlorambucil)
✓
C
Taxanes (e.g., paclitaxel, docetaxel)
D
Vinca alkaloids (e.g., vincristine, vinblastine)
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A 65-year-old man develops fever (39°C), productive cough, and consolidation in the right lower lobe on chest X-ray 5 days after elective hip replacement surgery. He is on ceftriaxone post-operatively. His blood cultures are sent. The microbiologist advises empiric escalation. Which SINGLE change is MOST consistent with rational antibiotic stewardship?
A
Add fluconazole to cover possible Candida superinfection
B
Switch to piperacillin-tazobactam to cover potential gram-negative HAP including P. aeruginosa
✓
C
Add vancomycin to the existing ceftriaxone to cover MRSA pneumonia
D
Continue ceftriaxone unchanged and await 48-hour culture results before escalating
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A 68-year-old diabetic woman presents with a 3-day history of painful vesicular rash over the left T6-T8 dermatomes. She is started on aciclovir. Which statement BEST explains why aciclovir is selective for herpes-infected cells?
A
Aciclovir is a prodrug activated by human thymidine kinase (TK) in infected and uninfected cells equally, but inhibits viral DNA polymerase selectively
B
Aciclovir is preferentially activated by viral thymidine kinase (TK) in herpes-infected cells → aciclovir triphosphate inhibits viral DNA polymerase and terminates chain elongation
✓
C
Aciclovir binds herpes virus surface glycoproteins and prevents viral entry into host cells
D
Aciclovir integrates into the herpes viral genome and causes permanent viral DNA mutation
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A 19-year-old sexually active woman presents with 7 days of purulent urethral/cervical discharge. Gram stain shows intracellular Gram-negative diplococci. NAAT confirms Neisseria gonorrhoeae. She is allergic to penicillin. According to Indian NACO guidelines for syndromic STD management, which treatment is MOST appropriate?
A
Oral ciprofloxacin 500mg single dose
B
IM ceftriaxone 500mg single dose + oral azithromycin 1g single dose
✓
C
Oral doxycycline 100mg twice daily for 7 days
D
Oral metronidazole 400mg twice daily for 5 days
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A 25-year-old man with newly diagnosed generalised tonic-clonic seizures has an MRI brain showing multiple calcified lesions and one 2cm viable cystic lesion in the right parietal lobe with perilesional oedema. He is diagnosed with active neurocysticercosis (NCC). Which treatment combination is MOST appropriate?
A
Praziquantel 50mg/kg/day in 3 divided doses for 15 days as monotherapy
B
Albendazole 15mg/kg/day for 28 days + dexamethasone + antiepileptic drug (AED)
✓
C
Immediate surgical excision of the cystic lesion followed by AED therapy
D
Observation with AED only — no cysticidal therapy required for viable cysts
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A 45-year-old man with aggressive non-Hodgkin lymphoma is receiving high-dose methotrexate (5g/m²) as part of his chemotherapy protocol. Eighteen hours after the infusion, he develops severe oral mucositis and his urine output decreases. His serum methotrexate level is markedly elevated. Which intervention is CRITICAL to prevent life-threatening toxicity?
A
Administer leucovorin (folinic acid) rescue and ensure adequate hydration with urinary alkalinisation
✓
B
Administer mesna IV to protect the bladder mucosa from drug toxicity
C
Administer amifostine before the next methotrexate cycle to scavenge free radicals
D
Discontinue methotrexate permanently as the drug is clearly too toxic at this dose
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A laboratory reports that a fluoroquinolone antibiotic has a minimum inhibitory concentration (MIC) of 0.5 µg/mL for Escherichia coli. In a patient receiving the drug, the peak plasma concentration (Cmax) is 8 µg/mL and the 24-hour area under the concentration-time curve (AUC24) is 60 µg·h/mL. What is the AUC24/MIC ratio, and does it meet the pharmacodynamic target for fluoroquinolones?
A
AUC24/MIC = 30 — below target; dose escalation likely needed
B
AUC24/MIC = 120 — meets target; the regimen is likely effective against this organism
✓
C
AUC24/MIC = 120 — exceeds target; the drug dose should be reduced to minimise toxicity
D
AUC24/MIC cannot be determined without knowing the drug's half-life
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