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PH3.1-9 | Central Nervous System Pharmacology — Graded Quiz

Graded 12 questions · Untimed · 2 attempts

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Q1 PH3.1 1 pt

Minimum alveolar concentration (MAC) of an inhalational anaesthetic is defined as the alveolar concentration at which:

A 50% of patients are unconscious
B 50% of patients do not move in response to a surgical skin incision
C 100% of patients are anaesthetised safely without respiratory depression
D 50% of patients achieve adequate post-operative analgesia

MAC is an ED50 for immobility in response to surgical incision. Low MAC = high potency (halothane 0.75%; isoflurane 1.15%; nitrous oxide 105%). Inversely correlates with the oil-gas partition coefficient (Meyer-Overton theory).

MAC measures immobility (ED50), not unconsciousness, analgesia, or safety. Key fact: N₂O has MAC >100% — cannot be used alone at atmospheric pressure to achieve anaesthesia.

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Q2 PH3.2 1 pt

Flumazenil reverses benzodiazepine sedation by acting as a:

A GABA-A receptor antagonist at the barbiturate binding site
B Competitive antagonist at the benzodiazepine binding site on GABA-A receptors
C Inverse agonist that directly inhibits GABA-A Cl⁻ channel conductance
D Partial agonist at μ-opioid receptors with weak GABA antagonism

Flumazenil = competitive BZD site antagonist at GABA-A. Short half-life → resedation risk with long-acting BZDs. Contraindicated in BZD-dependent patients (precipitates withdrawal). Not effective for barbiturate, alcohol, or opioid sedation.

Reversal agents: BZD → flumazenil; opioid → naloxone; NMBs → neostigmine (for non-depolarising) or spontaneous recovery (succinylcholine). There is NO reversal for barbiturates.

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Q3 PH3.3 1 pt

Which antiseizure drug is CONTRAINDICATED in absence epilepsy because it can paradoxically worsen seizure frequency?

A Valproate
B Carbamazepine
C Lamotrigine
D Ethosuximide

Na⁺ channel blockers (carbamazepine, phenytoin, oxcarbazepine) are CONTRAINDICATED in absence and myoclonic epilepsy. Absence first-line: ethosuximide (pure absence), valproate (absence + other types), lamotrigine (alternative).

Key matrix: focal/tonic-clonic → carbamazepine (safe); absence/myoclonic → valproate, ethosuximide, lamotrigine (safe); carbamazepine/phenytoin in absence → DANGEROUS (worsens seizures).

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Q4 PH3.4 1 pt

A 45-year-old man presents with morphine overdose and is given naloxone 0.4 mg IV with dramatic improvement. Thirty minutes later he becomes unresponsive again. The most likely explanation is:

A Naloxone has been metabolised faster than morphine; repeat dosing or infusion is needed
B Tolerance to naloxone has developed over 30 minutes
C The initial response was a placebo effect; morphine is not the cause
D Naloxone has activated κ-receptors causing secondary CNS depression

Naloxone t½ ≈ 30-80 min vs morphine t½ ≈ 2-4 h. Single-bolus reversal is insufficient for most opioid overdoses. Monitor for at least 4-6 hours; use continuous infusion for long-acting opioids. This is why hospital discharge after naloxone reversal requires prolonged observation.

Key pharmacokinetic principle: the duration of effect of naloxone is shorter than most opioids. Re-narcotisation is a predictable outcome after single-dose reversal of long-acting opioid overdose.

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Q5 PH3.5 1 pt

A patient has been on phenelzine (an irreversible MAOI) for depression. The psychiatrist wants to switch to sertraline. What is the minimum washout period required before starting sertraline?

A 2 days
B 7 days
C 14 days
D 5 weeks

MAOI → SSRI washout: 14 days (irreversible MAOIs). SSRI → MAOI washout: 14 days for most SSRIs, 5 weeks for fluoxetine. The danger: concurrent use = serotonin syndrome (potentially fatal). Also: tramadol, pethidine, and linezolid are serotonergic — same washout rules apply.

Memorise the washout asymmetry: irreversible MAOI-off → 14 days for enzyme regeneration; fluoxetine-off → 5 weeks for drug/metabolite clearance. The other SSRIs need only 14 days before starting MAOI.

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Q6 PH3.6 1 pt

A patient with generalised anxiety disorder is switched from lorazepam to buspirone. She returns after 1 week reporting that buspirone 'does not work' and her anxiety is worse than before. The most appropriate response is:

A Increase buspirone dose — the initial dose was likely subtherapeutic
B Explain that buspirone requires 2-4 weeks for therapeutic effect; review again in 3 weeks
C Discontinue buspirone and restart lorazepam since buspirone is ineffective
D Add a BZD bridge for 1 week while waiting for buspirone to work

Buspirone: 5-HT₁A partial agonist; delayed onset 2-4 weeks (receptor adaptation); no cross-tolerance with BZDs (cannot suppress BZD withdrawal); effective for GAD; safer long-term profile than BZDs (no dependence, no sedation, no cognitive impairment). Counsel patients explicitly about the delay.

Buspirone vs BZD: BZD = immediate effect (minutes to hours), dependence risk; Buspirone = delayed (2-4 weeks), no dependence, preferred long-term. The 2-4 week delay is the key clinical teaching point.

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Q7 PH3.7 1 pt

Carbidopa is combined with levodopa in Parkinson's disease management. Which of the following best explains the rationale for this combination?

A Carbidopa crosses the blood-brain barrier to enhance CNS dopamine synthesis
B Carbidopa inhibits peripheral DOPA-decarboxylase, reducing peripheral dopamine formation and increasing CNS levodopa availability
C Carbidopa inhibits catechol-O-methyltransferase (COMT), prolonging levodopa half-life
D Carbidopa acts as a dopamine agonist at D2 receptors in the striatum

Levodopa/carbidopa combination logic: levodopa crosses BBB (dopamine cannot); carbidopa blocks peripheral DDC (does not cross BBB) → less peripheral dopamine (less nausea/vomiting/hypotension) + more levodopa available for CNS → better efficacy at lower doses. Standard ratio 4:1 (levodopa:carbidopa).

The carbidopa story: without it, only 1-3% of oral levodopa reaches the brain; with it, ~10% reaches the brain. Peripheral DDC inhibition also prevents the nausea and cardiovascular adverse effects that made early levodopa monotherapy poorly tolerated.

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Q8 PH3.8 1 pt

A 50-year-old man with known chronic alcohol use is found unconscious. Blood glucose is 2.1 mmol/L. Before administering IV dextrose, which drug should be given first?

A IV naloxone to rule out co-ingested opioid
B IV thiamine 100 mg before administering dextrose
C IV sodium bicarbonate to correct anticipated alcoholic acidosis
D Immediate IV dextrose; thiamine can follow

Rule: thiamine 100 mg IV before glucose in ANY confused/comatose patient with chronic alcohol use. Mechanism: glucose → glycolysis → pyruvate → thiamine-dependent step. Without thiamine, toxic metabolites accumulate → Wernicke's encephalopathy → if untreated → Korsakoff's syndrome (irreversible).

Wernicke's triad: confusion, ophthalmoplegia, ataxia. Any two of three suffice clinically. Precipitating thiamine deficiency with glucose is an iatrogenic disaster — always give thiamine first.

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Q9 PH3.9 1 pt

Both cocaine and amphetamines increase synaptic dopamine in the nucleus accumbens, but their mechanisms differ. Which correctly distinguishes them?

A Cocaine blocks DAT; amphetamines reverse DAT to actively release dopamine into the synapse
B Cocaine reverses DAT; amphetamines block DAT and cause VMAT2 inhibition
C Both block DAT identically; cocaine additionally blocks SERT while amphetamines block NET
D Both activate D2 receptors directly; cocaine has higher receptor affinity than amphetamine

Cocaine: DAT blockade (reuptake inhibition) → ↑synaptic DA. Amphetamines: DAT reversal + VMAT2 inhibition → active DA release + vesicular DA release → stronger, longer effect. Both: NET and SERT effects too. Clinically: amphetamine withdrawal more prolonged; cocaine binge-crash more characteristic.

The DAT blockade vs DAT reversal distinction is frequently tested. Cocaine is the 'plug' (blocks); amphetamine is the 'pump' (reverses and releases). Both increase dopamine in nucleus accumbens = reward.

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Q10 PH3.5 1 pt

A first-year medical student asks why clozapine causes fewer extrapyramidal side effects (EPS) than haloperidol despite both being antipsychotics. The correct explanation is:

A Clozapine selectively blocks D4 receptors in the limbic system without blocking nigrostriatal D2 receptors
B Clozapine's potent 5-HT₂A antagonism enhances dopamine release in the nigrostriatal pathway, counteracting D2 blockade there
C Clozapine has no D2 receptor affinity and works entirely through H₁ and M₁ blockade
D Clozapine undergoes extensive first-pass metabolism that inactivates the EPS-causing metabolite

Atypical antipsychotic advantage over typicals: 5-HT₂A antagonism facilitates dopamine release in the nigrostriatal pathway, partially reversing D2 blockade there → fewer EPS. In the mesolimbic pathway (target for antipsychotic effect), 5-HT₂A blockade has less influence → therapeutic D2 blockade maintained. Clozapine additionally risks agranulocytosis (mandatory WBC monitoring) and metabolic syndrome.

EPS classification: acute dystonia, akathisia, drug-induced parkinsonism (all reversible), tardive dyskinesia (late, potentially irreversible). Atypicals cause less EPS but not zero. Clozapine: least EPS, most metabolic risk (agranulocytosis, weight gain, diabetes).

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Q11 PH3.4 1 pt

A patient on phenelzine for depression is admitted for appendicectomy. The surgical team considers pethidine for post-operative analgesia. This combination is CONTRAINDICATED because it can cause:

A Opioid toxidrome — excessive μ-receptor activation causing coma and respiratory arrest
B Serotonin syndrome — pethidine inhibits SERT, and with MAOI causing excess synaptic serotonin, a hyperserotonaemic state develops
C Cholinergic crisis from MAOI inhibition of cholinesterase combined with pethidine's muscarinic agonism
D Malignant hyperthermia through interaction at the ryanodine receptor

Pethidine is the ONE opioid that inhibits SERT. MAOI prevents serotonin breakdown. Together → serotonin syndrome (not opioid toxidrome). Safe opioid alternatives in MAOI patients: morphine, fentanyl, oxycodone (no SERT inhibition). Tramadol also inhibits SERT — similarly contraindicated.

SERT-inhibiting opioids contraindicated with MAOIs: pethidine (meperidine), tramadol, methadone (weak SERT). Safe alternatives: morphine, fentanyl, hydromorphone. This is a high-stakes prescribing error — NMC explicitly tests it (PH3.4 'special instructions for opioids').

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Q12 PH3.1 1 pt

Malignant hyperthermia is most likely to be triggered by which combination of agents?

A Halothane and succinylcholine
B Propofol and atracurium
C Ketamine and midazolam
D Nitrous oxide and thiopentone

MH triggers: halogenated volatile agents (halothane, isoflurane, sevoflurane, desflurane) + succinylcholine. Safe alternatives in MH-susceptible patients: propofol/thiopentone IV induction + nitrous oxide + non-depolarising NMBs + opioids. Dantrolene is the specific treatment — always available in any OR.

MH ≠ NMS ≠ serotonin syndrome. MH: OR setting, halogenated volatiles/succinylcholine, extreme rigidity, hyperCK. NMS: antipsychotics, days to develop, lead-pipe rigidity. Serotonin syndrome: serotonergic drugs, hours to develop, clonus/myoclonus.

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